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Wingman's ATC Notes
Warning
What follows is a series of copy/pastes -- a full-on random mish-mash of notes I had taken back when I was actually studying this stuff. The notes are in their original unmodified form. Unfortunately, my emphasis markup (underlines, bold faces, italics) didn't make it into the copy/pastes. I hereby waive all responsibility for any potential lack of intelligibility, coherency, or continuity. :smile-new:
~~~~~~ START ~~~~~~
Time: 24-hour clock based on GMT (zulu)
Form 7230-4 = 7226 facility daily record
^- back = signin-signout (personnel log)
Form 7230-10 = Position Log (like the logs for the lab)
^-back = same as front
*mistakes = single line through
Form 7230-1 = airport traffic records (air carrier, ga, military counts per hour)
Form 7230-26 ?
Form 7230-16 ?
Flight Data = controller support position (no actual control function)
Receives, posts, and relays info that has a direct bearing on the control action to be taken by controllers.
Flight Progress Strips = primary means of receiving and posting current data on air traffic
Single Control Actions are based on info shown on flight progress strips
Amendments to progress strip must be posted to be forwarded to the next controller
FDIO = strip printer (Flight Data Input/Output)
EFIAS = electronic transferring of strip (not physically handed)
X to delete a unwanted climb or descend
--- through an altitude being vacated until aircraft reports new level altitude
*** Preplanning may be done by a red pencil
Forward the position report over the last reporting point in the transferring facility's airspace if the tie differs by more than 3 minutes from the estimate given.
Aircraft Equipment Codes: 7110.65 2-3-8
XTU= NO DME (NOTHING, or transponder only) "extra tight uniform"
DBA = DME (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "dolls balls airmen"
MNP = TACAN ONLY (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "may need privatetime"
YCI = (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "you can itch"
RVSM codes: JKLQWH
Callsigns = 7 letters or less
'T' = airtaxi
'L' = lifeguard
ANK vs RANK
RANK is QWERTY, ANK is ABCD
'ver' key = verify (mode) - checks format of message before transmission
RANK has 3 sections (white - message entry, blue -editing, green - enter, message waiting light - yellow)
F1-12: function keys
RFSP = replacement flight strip printer
Remote Control unit - communicates with the central control unit at the ARTCC
'veneer button' helps center the strip
CRT - 3 sections, previously displayed information, incoming information display, composition area.
Messages
AM - to amend one or more fields in a computer-stored flight plan
DM - to depart an aircraft having a computer-stores flight plan
FP - To enter an active or proposed flight plan
FR - to request a flight plan readout
GI - To enter general information messages and specify output
HM - To initiate a hold or modify existing hold data
PR = to update an active flight plan
RB - To retransmit to ARTS
RF - to force flight data transfer to the ARTS system
KTNT (way west), KBCT (northmost), KPMP, KFXE, KFLL, KHWO, KOPF, KMIA, [circle counterclockwise from the top: KTMB, KX51, KHST], 07FA (way south)
9 Controlled airports, 3 uncontrolled (Ocean Reef, Dade Collier, Homestead General)
KBCT: Boca, Run by Robinson Aviation (RVA)(contracted). Twr: 118.425
KPMP: Pompano, RVA, Twr: 125.4
KFXE: Executive, FAA, Twr: 120.9
KFLL: Fort Lauderdale International FAA, Twr: 119.3, 120.2
KHWO: North Perry, RVA, Twr: 132.1
KOPF: Opa-Locka Twr: RVA, 120.7
KMIA: Miami International, Twr: FAA, 118.3, 123.9
KTMB: Kendall Tamiami Executive, FAA, Twr: 118.9
KX51: Homestead General, Uncontrolled CTAF: 122.8
KHST: Homestead Air Reserve, Department Of Defense, Twr 133.45
KTNT: Dade Collier, Uncontrolled: 123.0
07FA: Ocean Reef, Uncontrolled 122.7
DCB Eval:
Change map range
Center & de-center map
Resize range rings
Place range rings over an airport
Recenter range rings
Inhibit/display DCB
Display EAST map
Multifunction T ( arrival/departure list) [TRAFFIC]
Coast-Suspend List: Mfc TC [coast]
LA/CA/MCI: Mfc TM [Management]
Preview: Mfc P
System Area: Mfc S
FD/CD Test Review:
*Flight Data equipment includes FDIO: RANK, CRT, Printer
*RANK + CRT are used to compose outgoing messages
*ATIS Broadcast is identified by a letter
*The ATIS broadcasts recorded non-control information
*Flight Data makes the ATIS
*Automated Terminal Information Service
*In terminal facilities, the FD position duties include
- Receive, process, distribute flight progress strips
- Compile statistical data
- Assist the tower cab in meeting situational objectives
*Every clearance has a ACID
*The purpose of an ATC clearance is to prevent collisions between known aircraft
*For civil aircraft, the registration number can be prefixed by 'November' or type or manufacturer name
*Followed by 'heavy' (if applicable)
*Beacon Code aaaaaaalways goes in box 5 on the strip
*To avoid misunderstanding, mark a slant through a zero and underline an 'S'
*At FXE, the ATIS code is entered in box 10
*FIELD 3 (in FDIO strip entry in a flight plan) is the aircraft heavy designator, type, number of aircraft
*In emergencies, alert 2 is a MAJOR difficulty (alert 3 is the crash)
*In flight plan entry: Fields are separated by '[space]' and elements are separated by '/' or '.'(unlike) or '..'(like)
*FRC = full route clearance (circle it and read the full route)
*Type "FR [space] acid/cid [enter]" to get the full route on the CRT
*Type "AM [space] cid [space] field#/abbrev. [space] change [enter]" to make an amendment
*(field 7 is TIME [P for proposed]… field 2 is ACID)
*Type "RS [space] cid/acid/aid [enter]" to remove strip
*SID phraseology: "cleared to xxx airport via the xxxxxx departure"
*Altitude data is given in the ORDER TO BE FLOWN
*Primary functions of the clearance delivery position
-issue clearances and ensure accuracy of the pilot read back
*When filed route needs to be modified, remarks section will have 'O FRC'
*ATC Clearance is required for all VFR aircraft operating in class 'B' airspace
*ACID may have up to 7 characters
*What is the fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued a clearance: 'clearance limit'
*Abbreviated clearance must always contain an altitude assignment
*Abbreviated clearance used to reduce verbiage
*Clearance delivery is NOT responsible for ensuring separation
*SVFR minimum is 1SM ground visibility (air carriers is 1/2 mile)
*IFR conditions are below 1000 feet clouds and 3SM visibility
*Why are SVFR aircraft not assigned fixed altitudes? - Because of the clear of cloud requirement
*SVFR ops MUST BE REQUESTED BY THE PILOT AND APPROVED BY ATC
*If practical, the clearance limit should be the destination airport
*Air Force 1 clearance delivery is always "cleared to destination as filed"
*When a route or altitude is amended, you must restate all applicable altitude clearances in the order to be flown
*Clearance delivery: "Departure Frequency: xxx point xx Sqwuak XXXX"
*In a departure clearance, assign an altitude requested by the pilot or an altitude as near as possible.
*If a pilot requested altitude cannot be assigned, inform the pilot when and where clearance to a requested altitude can be expected unless instructions are printed within a specific departure procedure
*Purposes of a SID: to reduce communication and departure delays increasing efficiency & provide OBSTACLE CLEARANCE in IMC
*SID gets you from the terminal to the en-route environment
*Departure Transition Area gets you from the SID to several different airways or jet routes
*Preferential routes are adapted within host center computers to establish: STANDARDIZATION, establish coordinisation, confined to one center's airspace, pilots know what to file (minimizes amendments)
3 ways to clear an aircraft with amended route: "as filed, except change route to read..." "...rest of route unchanged" "change … to read…"
Post current data on Flight Progress Strips… It's a legal document
Cannot read abbreviated clearance if route is changed prior to takeoff
Specify altitude restrictions when not included in an SID
Phraseology to amend previously issued clearance: "Rest of route unchanged"
Phraseology for abbreviated clearance "cleared to xxxx airport AS FILED"
-Protect ILS critical area ceiling under 800 and visibility 2 miles
-Noise abatement SOP for jets 12,500 or more
-There FORMAL (mandatory) and INFORMAL (voluntary)
-Runway assignment is by most aligned to wind if 5kts or more
-Use 'calm wind runway' winds less than 5 knots
-"WINDS CALM" if winds LESS THAN 3 knots
-Coordinate with Local if taxiing aircraft to other than the active or for intersection departures
-Tower or pilot (request) can initiate intersection departures
-Tell them distance to end of runway down to nearest 50 feet if: pilot requests, military (unless an -appropriate published procedure)
-"Runway 8 at [intersection taxiway] intersection, departure [#####] feet available"
-Movement area = controlled by ground controller
-Must coordinate with ATC prior to entering the movement area
-Non-movement area… responsibility with pilot, airport manager, etc.
-LOA defines the Movement / Non-Movement area
-Purpose of the ATC system: prevent collisions and organize and expedite traffic flow, & support Nat' Security and Homeland Defense
-First Priority = separate aircraft & issue safety alerts
-Service based on known or observed traffic and airport conditions
-Charlie south of Bravo is a NON-MOVEMENT area because we can't see it
-First Priority aircraft is aircraft in distress
-[NO LIGHT GUN]
-use "Approved" or "Unable" or "Stand by"
-"Immediately" means expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation
-"Expedite" requires prompt compliance to avoid the development of an imminent situation
-never tell a heavy to taxi with greater-than-normal taxi speed
-"It APPEARS…" if you see an aircraft malfunction
-Breaking action "Good, Fair, Poor, Nil" (report all but 'good' in the ATIS: "breaking action advisories are in affect" to all arriving and departing aircraft)
-Give all information in a TIMELY MANNER
-Prefix an aircraft call sign by Mfr, Type, or 'November'
-Answer first call back with FULL CALLSIGN and YOUR POSITION
-Use full call sign if two similar call signs
-Use full call sign for air carriers (but can use group form "American twenty ninety six")
-Air Force One, Air Force Two, Air Force One Foxtrot, D.O.T. One, SafeAir One, FlightCheck
-Never say "cleared" as ground, only say "taxi, proceed, hold"
No ATIS? "WRAN" Weather, Runway, Approach, NOTAMs
Issue RVR with visibility of 1 mile or less, or RVR is active (6000 or less)
Issue midpoint or rollout RVR if less than touchdown RVR, or less than 2000ft
- "Clearance limit" = fix, point, etc
- ALTITUDE ALTITUDE ALTITUDE (in an abbreviated clearance)
- Abbreviated clearance reduces verbiage
- CD is NOT responsible for separation
- Remarks of a strip will say "FRC" if plan needs to be modified
- Primary function of CD is issue clearances and ensure accurate readbacks
- Altitude data is issued in the order to be flown
- SVFR are never assigned fixed altitudes to stay CLEAR OF CLOUDS
- SVFR: pilot request, atc approves
- Clearance limit should specify destination airport whenever practical
- When route/alt is amended, restate all altitudes
- Departure frequency ###, squawk ###
- Post flight data information on FLIGHT STRIPS
- Route change prior to departure cannot use abbreviated clearance
- Transition connects a SID to a route
- Obstacle clearance & reduced communication & delays are reasons for standard departures
- Tell when to expect altitude unless it's IN A DEPARTURE PROCEEDURE
- Preferred routes for inter/intrafacility coordination, used to minimize flight delays, route are within ONE CENTER's airspace
- Amendments: "change xxx to read" "rest of route unchanged" "cleared via…"
- Departure clearance: assign altitude requested by pilot or as near as possible
- Part of clearance that provides transition from TERMINAL to ENROUTE = SID
- SVFR ground visibility = 1 mile for departing aircraft
- "Air Force One, Cleared to destination as filed"
- EDCT = Expected Departure Clearance Time
- Instruct A/C not assigned a SID to expect altitude 10 minutes after departure
- If DTA appears with no '+' signs, you can "cleared as filed"
- In FXE Approach LOA
- ARKES at or below 10,000 are issued radar vectors in place of the SID
- THNDR below 6000 issued radar vectors V97->WINCO
- First priority for controllers is separate aircraft and issue safety alerts
- Provisions of ATC service are based on airport conditions and known and observed traffic
- Prerequisite for issuing taxi instructions = determine position of aircraft
- "Taxi to runway eight"
- Never use "Cleared" in ground control
- Intersection departures may be initiated by a controller or requested by a pilot
- Give distance to end of rwy down to nearest 50 IF request or IF military and not published in directive
- Must tell pilot what runway is in use if he requests another runway
- "Hold short of runway eight"
- Conditional phrases are BAD (cross behind landing traffic)
- Braking actions: "good, fair, poor, nil"
- Equipment is described in a manner that will assist the pilot in recognizing them
- RVR is the distance a pilot can identify or recognize high intensity runway lights or other contrasting targets
- Issue RVR when visibility is 1 mile or less
- Phraseology "Runway two six R V R four thousand"
- turbojets over 12,500lbs are in the noise abatement SOP
- Stand-by is neither approval or denial
- Expedite = PROMPT COMPLIANCE
- Immediate = EXPEDITIOUS COMPLIANCE
- "IT APPEARS" you got somethin hanging out of your airplane
- Coordinate when runway crossing is completed "runway xxx crossing complete"
- What position is in direct communication with the aircraft? LOCAL CONTROL
- What is LC's first priority along with separation of aircraft? SAFETY ALERTS
- LC prioritizes actions according to their significance to…: THE OVERALL TRAFFIC SITUATION
- LC shall ensure that the runway is free of all known vehicles before: A/C STARTS TAKEOFF ROLL or ARRIVING AIRCRAFT CROSSES THE LANDING THRESHHOLD
- In the traffic pattern, which aircraft has right-of-way: AIRCRAFT ON SHORT FINAL TO THE APPROACH
- LC shall visually scan the runway how often? TO THE MAXIMUM EXTENT POSSIBLE
- With whom shall LC coordinate before using non-active runway? GROUND CONTROL
- When can you NOT authorize TPIH at an intersection? AT NIGHT
- Instruct a civil aircraft or military transport or cargo: 1/2 MILE FROM RUNWAY END
- Issue current touchdown RVR to departing aircraft whenever prevailing visibility goes to: 1 SM OR LESS
- For RVR, issue both midpoint or rollout when either of the values is less than: 2000 OR LOWER THAN THE PREVIOUS POINT
- Separate a small departure on the same runway from an intersection behind a departing large by: 3 MINUTES AFTER TAKEOFF
- An aircraft departing behind a heavy on the same runway (or parallel closer than 2500 feet) requires: 2 MINUTES for WAKE TURBULANCE
- Separate 2 helicopters departing from the same takeoff area by ensuring the 2nd heli waits for the preceding to: LEAVE THE TAKEOFF AREA
- Issue wake turbulence advisories (when blah blah blah long question) as: "Heavy DC-10, 2 mile final"
- A departing IFR aircraft may be released as long as an arriving aircraft is no closer than: 2 MILES
○ In a non-radar environment, may allow simultaneous departures when centerlines are departed by: 3,500 (and courses diverge by 30')
- In non-radar, when no approach control is available, but an appropriate fix: Departing a/c must be on a turn out of the way before the procedure turn
- Between sunrise and sunset, Cat2 behind Cat1 = 4,500 feet
- Takeoff phraseology: "Cleared for takeoff"
- To turn off the runway: "Turn right next taxiway"
- Simultaneous operations on parallel runways can only be conducted: WHEN THE WEATHER IS VFR
- The ceiling and visibility requirements for air carriers land-and-hold-short: CELING OF 1500 FEET AND VISIBILITY OF 5 MILES
- In order to conduct land-and-hold-short, the landing distance of the runway must be: VFR and RUNWAY DRY and BREAKING MUST BE GOOD
- Between sunrise and sunset, Cat1 landing behind a Cat1: 3000 FEET
- Between sunSET and sunRISE (night), minimum distance when Cat2 lands behind Cat1: CLEAR OF RUNWAY (always at night)
- Phraseology to next plane when proceeding aircraft aborts on the same runway: "CANCEL TAKEOFF CLEARANCE"
- What is the minimum distance separation that can be applied between two Cat3 aircraft: 6000 FEET AND AIRBORNE
- If suitable landmarks for determining distance are not available: PROCEEDING AIRCRAFT MUST BE TURNED TO AVOID CONFLICT
- A departing piper colt (? Apparently a Cat1) is airborne, following cherokee on same runway needs: 3000 FEET
- If arriving a/c reports a position where it can be seen, but you do not have it in sight: "NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY 8 CLEARED TO LAND"
○ Gotta call all other airports nearby to see if he's maybe lost
- Simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallels may only be conducted when: WEATHER CONDITIONS ARE VFR
- Phraseology for intersection departure: "[ACID] RUNWAY 26 AT DELTA, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF"
- Minimum separation for Cat1 departing after Cat3(jet): 6000' AND AIRBORNE
- Departing a/c that will be vectored immediately after takeoff must be assigned initial headings: BEFORE DEPARTURE
- When applying separation to successive departure, you must consider: AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, departure in same direction from parallel runways may be released with 15 degrees of divergence if runways are separated by 2500'
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, separate departures from same heliport if courses diverge by 15 degrees.
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, separation heli departure from another aircraft using 15 degrees, use: HELICOPTER'S TAKEOFF COURSE
- In RADAR, separate arrivals from departures by 2 miles if separation will increase to 3 miles: when takeoff roll begins.
- In NON-RADAR, for 2 departures diverging by 45 deg's, need: 1 MINUTE between takeoffs
- In NON-RADAR if courses diverge by 45 degrees within 5 minutes, need 2 MINUTES BETWEEN TAKEOFFS
- In NON-RADAR, ensure departure TURNS OUT OF THE WAY before arrival makes PROCEEDURE TURN
- Issue Wake Turbulence advisories with position, altitude, and direction of flight of a heavy-jet to: ANY VFR NOT BEING RADAR VECTORED
- Cancel takeoff clearances only for: SAFETY REASONS
- Must identify a runway in a takeoff clearance: ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS
WAKE TURBULANCE:
- Small behind heavy = 5 miles
- Large behind heavy = 4 miles
- Separate an a/c from a heavy jet when operating on a runway with a displaced threshold, if the projected paths will cross, by 2 minutes
- SVFR is a VFR clearance in IFR conditions. MUST be requested by pilot.
- Can only be approved if arriving and departing IFR flights are NOT delayed
- Ground visibility for SVFR must be 1 SM … For air carriers, it's 1/2 SM
- SVFR can never be assigned fixed altitude because of the 'stay clear of clouds' requirement
- Approach conducted by an a/c on an IFR flight plan that authorizes clear-of-clouds to the airport = VISUAL APPROACH
- Pilot must have the AIRPORT or the PROCEEDING AIRCRAFT to perform a visual approach
- In order to clear an aircraft for a visual approach, the overtaking aircraft must be advised of the distance and speed difference of the proceeding aircraft
- If the aircraft sees the airport but not the proceeding aircraft, RADAR SEPARATION or VISUAL SEPARATION must be maintained to clear for the visual approach
- Must ensure all other separation before application of 'visual separation'
- Must consider WAKE TURBULANCE, WEATHER, ROUTE OF FLIGHT, and AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE to provide visual separation.
- Controller is responsible for calling other aircraft's position, direction, and intentions before applying visual separation
Minimum separation (in time) for a BE35 (bonanza) to depart behind a DC-10… 2 minutes
Radar requirement... 5 miles
If a C310 is 1000' down the runway on takeoff roll, a Cherokee holding short of the runway requesting takeoff… YOU CAN ISSUE TAKEOFF CLEARANCE if there's reasonable assurance that the separation will exist when the Cherokee begins takeoff roll.
If a Sabreliner (large) departs runway 26, and a bonanza (small) is holding short at delta (intersection takeoff), when can he takeoff? 3 minutes (small at intersection departing behind large = 3 minutes)
What follows is a series of copy/pastes -- a full-on random mish-mash of notes I had taken back when I was actually studying this stuff. The notes are in their original unmodified form. Unfortunately, my emphasis markup (underlines, bold faces, italics) didn't make it into the copy/pastes. I hereby waive all responsibility for any potential lack of intelligibility, coherency, or continuity. :smile-new:
~~~~~~ START ~~~~~~
Time: 24-hour clock based on GMT (zulu)
Form 7230-4 = 7226 facility daily record
^- back = signin-signout (personnel log)
Form 7230-10 = Position Log (like the logs for the lab)
^-back = same as front
*mistakes = single line through
Form 7230-1 = airport traffic records (air carrier, ga, military counts per hour)
Form 7230-26 ?
Form 7230-16 ?
Flight Data = controller support position (no actual control function)
Receives, posts, and relays info that has a direct bearing on the control action to be taken by controllers.
Flight Progress Strips = primary means of receiving and posting current data on air traffic
Single Control Actions are based on info shown on flight progress strips
Amendments to progress strip must be posted to be forwarded to the next controller
FDIO = strip printer (Flight Data Input/Output)
EFIAS = electronic transferring of strip (not physically handed)
X to delete a unwanted climb or descend
--- through an altitude being vacated until aircraft reports new level altitude
*** Preplanning may be done by a red pencil
Forward the position report over the last reporting point in the transferring facility's airspace if the tie differs by more than 3 minutes from the estimate given.
Aircraft Equipment Codes: 7110.65 2-3-8
XTU= NO DME (NOTHING, or transponder only) "extra tight uniform"
DBA = DME (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "dolls balls airmen"
MNP = TACAN ONLY (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "may need privatetime"
YCI = (no trans, trans no mode c, trans mode c) "you can itch"
RVSM codes: JKLQWH
Callsigns = 7 letters or less
'T' = airtaxi
'L' = lifeguard
ANK vs RANK
RANK is QWERTY, ANK is ABCD
'ver' key = verify (mode) - checks format of message before transmission
RANK has 3 sections (white - message entry, blue -editing, green - enter, message waiting light - yellow)
F1-12: function keys
RFSP = replacement flight strip printer
Remote Control unit - communicates with the central control unit at the ARTCC
'veneer button' helps center the strip
CRT - 3 sections, previously displayed information, incoming information display, composition area.
Messages
AM - to amend one or more fields in a computer-stored flight plan
DM - to depart an aircraft having a computer-stores flight plan
FP - To enter an active or proposed flight plan
FR - to request a flight plan readout
GI - To enter general information messages and specify output
HM - To initiate a hold or modify existing hold data
PR = to update an active flight plan
RB - To retransmit to ARTS
RF - to force flight data transfer to the ARTS system
KTNT (way west), KBCT (northmost), KPMP, KFXE, KFLL, KHWO, KOPF, KMIA, [circle counterclockwise from the top: KTMB, KX51, KHST], 07FA (way south)
9 Controlled airports, 3 uncontrolled (Ocean Reef, Dade Collier, Homestead General)
KBCT: Boca, Run by Robinson Aviation (RVA)(contracted). Twr: 118.425
KPMP: Pompano, RVA, Twr: 125.4
KFXE: Executive, FAA, Twr: 120.9
KFLL: Fort Lauderdale International FAA, Twr: 119.3, 120.2
KHWO: North Perry, RVA, Twr: 132.1
KOPF: Opa-Locka Twr: RVA, 120.7
KMIA: Miami International, Twr: FAA, 118.3, 123.9
KTMB: Kendall Tamiami Executive, FAA, Twr: 118.9
KX51: Homestead General, Uncontrolled CTAF: 122.8
KHST: Homestead Air Reserve, Department Of Defense, Twr 133.45
KTNT: Dade Collier, Uncontrolled: 123.0
07FA: Ocean Reef, Uncontrolled 122.7
DCB Eval:
Change map range
Center & de-center map
Resize range rings
Place range rings over an airport
Recenter range rings
Inhibit/display DCB
Display EAST map
Multifunction T ( arrival/departure list) [TRAFFIC]
Coast-Suspend List: Mfc TC [coast]
LA/CA/MCI: Mfc TM [Management]
Preview: Mfc P
System Area: Mfc S
FD/CD Test Review:
*Flight Data equipment includes FDIO: RANK, CRT, Printer
*RANK + CRT are used to compose outgoing messages
*ATIS Broadcast is identified by a letter
*The ATIS broadcasts recorded non-control information
*Flight Data makes the ATIS
*Automated Terminal Information Service
*In terminal facilities, the FD position duties include
- Receive, process, distribute flight progress strips
- Compile statistical data
- Assist the tower cab in meeting situational objectives
*Every clearance has a ACID
*The purpose of an ATC clearance is to prevent collisions between known aircraft
*For civil aircraft, the registration number can be prefixed by 'November' or type or manufacturer name
*Followed by 'heavy' (if applicable)
*Beacon Code aaaaaaalways goes in box 5 on the strip
*To avoid misunderstanding, mark a slant through a zero and underline an 'S'
*At FXE, the ATIS code is entered in box 10
*FIELD 3 (in FDIO strip entry in a flight plan) is the aircraft heavy designator, type, number of aircraft
*In emergencies, alert 2 is a MAJOR difficulty (alert 3 is the crash)
*In flight plan entry: Fields are separated by '[space]' and elements are separated by '/' or '.'(unlike) or '..'(like)
*FRC = full route clearance (circle it and read the full route)
*Type "FR [space] acid/cid [enter]" to get the full route on the CRT
*Type "AM [space] cid [space] field#/abbrev. [space] change [enter]" to make an amendment
*(field 7 is TIME [P for proposed]… field 2 is ACID)
*Type "RS [space] cid/acid/aid [enter]" to remove strip
*SID phraseology: "cleared to xxx airport via the xxxxxx departure"
*Altitude data is given in the ORDER TO BE FLOWN
*Primary functions of the clearance delivery position
-issue clearances and ensure accuracy of the pilot read back
*When filed route needs to be modified, remarks section will have 'O FRC'
*ATC Clearance is required for all VFR aircraft operating in class 'B' airspace
*ACID may have up to 7 characters
*What is the fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued a clearance: 'clearance limit'
*Abbreviated clearance must always contain an altitude assignment
*Abbreviated clearance used to reduce verbiage
*Clearance delivery is NOT responsible for ensuring separation
*SVFR minimum is 1SM ground visibility (air carriers is 1/2 mile)
*IFR conditions are below 1000 feet clouds and 3SM visibility
*Why are SVFR aircraft not assigned fixed altitudes? - Because of the clear of cloud requirement
*SVFR ops MUST BE REQUESTED BY THE PILOT AND APPROVED BY ATC
*If practical, the clearance limit should be the destination airport
*Air Force 1 clearance delivery is always "cleared to destination as filed"
*When a route or altitude is amended, you must restate all applicable altitude clearances in the order to be flown
*Clearance delivery: "Departure Frequency: xxx point xx Sqwuak XXXX"
*In a departure clearance, assign an altitude requested by the pilot or an altitude as near as possible.
*If a pilot requested altitude cannot be assigned, inform the pilot when and where clearance to a requested altitude can be expected unless instructions are printed within a specific departure procedure
*Purposes of a SID: to reduce communication and departure delays increasing efficiency & provide OBSTACLE CLEARANCE in IMC
*SID gets you from the terminal to the en-route environment
*Departure Transition Area gets you from the SID to several different airways or jet routes
*Preferential routes are adapted within host center computers to establish: STANDARDIZATION, establish coordinisation, confined to one center's airspace, pilots know what to file (minimizes amendments)
3 ways to clear an aircraft with amended route: "as filed, except change route to read..." "...rest of route unchanged" "change … to read…"
Post current data on Flight Progress Strips… It's a legal document
Cannot read abbreviated clearance if route is changed prior to takeoff
Specify altitude restrictions when not included in an SID
Phraseology to amend previously issued clearance: "Rest of route unchanged"
Phraseology for abbreviated clearance "cleared to xxxx airport AS FILED"
-Protect ILS critical area ceiling under 800 and visibility 2 miles
-Noise abatement SOP for jets 12,500 or more
-There FORMAL (mandatory) and INFORMAL (voluntary)
-Runway assignment is by most aligned to wind if 5kts or more
-Use 'calm wind runway' winds less than 5 knots
-"WINDS CALM" if winds LESS THAN 3 knots
-Coordinate with Local if taxiing aircraft to other than the active or for intersection departures
-Tower or pilot (request) can initiate intersection departures
-Tell them distance to end of runway down to nearest 50 feet if: pilot requests, military (unless an -appropriate published procedure)
-"Runway 8 at [intersection taxiway] intersection, departure [#####] feet available"
-Movement area = controlled by ground controller
-Must coordinate with ATC prior to entering the movement area
-Non-movement area… responsibility with pilot, airport manager, etc.
-LOA defines the Movement / Non-Movement area
-Purpose of the ATC system: prevent collisions and organize and expedite traffic flow, & support Nat' Security and Homeland Defense
-First Priority = separate aircraft & issue safety alerts
-Service based on known or observed traffic and airport conditions
-Charlie south of Bravo is a NON-MOVEMENT area because we can't see it
-First Priority aircraft is aircraft in distress
-[NO LIGHT GUN]
-use "Approved" or "Unable" or "Stand by"
-"Immediately" means expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation
-"Expedite" requires prompt compliance to avoid the development of an imminent situation
-never tell a heavy to taxi with greater-than-normal taxi speed
-"It APPEARS…" if you see an aircraft malfunction
-Breaking action "Good, Fair, Poor, Nil" (report all but 'good' in the ATIS: "breaking action advisories are in affect" to all arriving and departing aircraft)
-Give all information in a TIMELY MANNER
-Prefix an aircraft call sign by Mfr, Type, or 'November'
-Answer first call back with FULL CALLSIGN and YOUR POSITION
-Use full call sign if two similar call signs
-Use full call sign for air carriers (but can use group form "American twenty ninety six")
-Air Force One, Air Force Two, Air Force One Foxtrot, D.O.T. One, SafeAir One, FlightCheck
-Never say "cleared" as ground, only say "taxi, proceed, hold"
No ATIS? "WRAN" Weather, Runway, Approach, NOTAMs
Issue RVR with visibility of 1 mile or less, or RVR is active (6000 or less)
Issue midpoint or rollout RVR if less than touchdown RVR, or less than 2000ft
- "Clearance limit" = fix, point, etc
- ALTITUDE ALTITUDE ALTITUDE (in an abbreviated clearance)
- Abbreviated clearance reduces verbiage
- CD is NOT responsible for separation
- Remarks of a strip will say "FRC" if plan needs to be modified
- Primary function of CD is issue clearances and ensure accurate readbacks
- Altitude data is issued in the order to be flown
- SVFR are never assigned fixed altitudes to stay CLEAR OF CLOUDS
- SVFR: pilot request, atc approves
- Clearance limit should specify destination airport whenever practical
- When route/alt is amended, restate all altitudes
- Departure frequency ###, squawk ###
- Post flight data information on FLIGHT STRIPS
- Route change prior to departure cannot use abbreviated clearance
- Transition connects a SID to a route
- Obstacle clearance & reduced communication & delays are reasons for standard departures
- Tell when to expect altitude unless it's IN A DEPARTURE PROCEEDURE
- Preferred routes for inter/intrafacility coordination, used to minimize flight delays, route are within ONE CENTER's airspace
- Amendments: "change xxx to read" "rest of route unchanged" "cleared via…"
- Departure clearance: assign altitude requested by pilot or as near as possible
- Part of clearance that provides transition from TERMINAL to ENROUTE = SID
- SVFR ground visibility = 1 mile for departing aircraft
- "Air Force One, Cleared to destination as filed"
- EDCT = Expected Departure Clearance Time
- Instruct A/C not assigned a SID to expect altitude 10 minutes after departure
- If DTA appears with no '+' signs, you can "cleared as filed"
- In FXE Approach LOA
- ARKES at or below 10,000 are issued radar vectors in place of the SID
- THNDR below 6000 issued radar vectors V97->WINCO
- First priority for controllers is separate aircraft and issue safety alerts
- Provisions of ATC service are based on airport conditions and known and observed traffic
- Prerequisite for issuing taxi instructions = determine position of aircraft
- "Taxi to runway eight"
- Never use "Cleared" in ground control
- Intersection departures may be initiated by a controller or requested by a pilot
- Give distance to end of rwy down to nearest 50 IF request or IF military and not published in directive
- Must tell pilot what runway is in use if he requests another runway
- "Hold short of runway eight"
- Conditional phrases are BAD (cross behind landing traffic)
- Braking actions: "good, fair, poor, nil"
- Equipment is described in a manner that will assist the pilot in recognizing them
- RVR is the distance a pilot can identify or recognize high intensity runway lights or other contrasting targets
- Issue RVR when visibility is 1 mile or less
- Phraseology "Runway two six R V R four thousand"
- turbojets over 12,500lbs are in the noise abatement SOP
- Stand-by is neither approval or denial
- Expedite = PROMPT COMPLIANCE
- Immediate = EXPEDITIOUS COMPLIANCE
- "IT APPEARS" you got somethin hanging out of your airplane
- Coordinate when runway crossing is completed "runway xxx crossing complete"
- What position is in direct communication with the aircraft? LOCAL CONTROL
- What is LC's first priority along with separation of aircraft? SAFETY ALERTS
- LC prioritizes actions according to their significance to…: THE OVERALL TRAFFIC SITUATION
- LC shall ensure that the runway is free of all known vehicles before: A/C STARTS TAKEOFF ROLL or ARRIVING AIRCRAFT CROSSES THE LANDING THRESHHOLD
- In the traffic pattern, which aircraft has right-of-way: AIRCRAFT ON SHORT FINAL TO THE APPROACH
- LC shall visually scan the runway how often? TO THE MAXIMUM EXTENT POSSIBLE
- With whom shall LC coordinate before using non-active runway? GROUND CONTROL
- When can you NOT authorize TPIH at an intersection? AT NIGHT
- Instruct a civil aircraft or military transport or cargo: 1/2 MILE FROM RUNWAY END
- Issue current touchdown RVR to departing aircraft whenever prevailing visibility goes to: 1 SM OR LESS
- For RVR, issue both midpoint or rollout when either of the values is less than: 2000 OR LOWER THAN THE PREVIOUS POINT
- Separate a small departure on the same runway from an intersection behind a departing large by: 3 MINUTES AFTER TAKEOFF
- An aircraft departing behind a heavy on the same runway (or parallel closer than 2500 feet) requires: 2 MINUTES for WAKE TURBULANCE
- Separate 2 helicopters departing from the same takeoff area by ensuring the 2nd heli waits for the preceding to: LEAVE THE TAKEOFF AREA
- Issue wake turbulence advisories (when blah blah blah long question) as: "Heavy DC-10, 2 mile final"
- A departing IFR aircraft may be released as long as an arriving aircraft is no closer than: 2 MILES
○ In a non-radar environment, may allow simultaneous departures when centerlines are departed by: 3,500 (and courses diverge by 30')
- In non-radar, when no approach control is available, but an appropriate fix: Departing a/c must be on a turn out of the way before the procedure turn
- Between sunrise and sunset, Cat2 behind Cat1 = 4,500 feet
- Takeoff phraseology: "Cleared for takeoff"
- To turn off the runway: "Turn right next taxiway"
- Simultaneous operations on parallel runways can only be conducted: WHEN THE WEATHER IS VFR
- The ceiling and visibility requirements for air carriers land-and-hold-short: CELING OF 1500 FEET AND VISIBILITY OF 5 MILES
- In order to conduct land-and-hold-short, the landing distance of the runway must be: VFR and RUNWAY DRY and BREAKING MUST BE GOOD
- Between sunrise and sunset, Cat1 landing behind a Cat1: 3000 FEET
- Between sunSET and sunRISE (night), minimum distance when Cat2 lands behind Cat1: CLEAR OF RUNWAY (always at night)
- Phraseology to next plane when proceeding aircraft aborts on the same runway: "CANCEL TAKEOFF CLEARANCE"
- What is the minimum distance separation that can be applied between two Cat3 aircraft: 6000 FEET AND AIRBORNE
- If suitable landmarks for determining distance are not available: PROCEEDING AIRCRAFT MUST BE TURNED TO AVOID CONFLICT
- A departing piper colt (? Apparently a Cat1) is airborne, following cherokee on same runway needs: 3000 FEET
- If arriving a/c reports a position where it can be seen, but you do not have it in sight: "NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY 8 CLEARED TO LAND"
○ Gotta call all other airports nearby to see if he's maybe lost
- Simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallels may only be conducted when: WEATHER CONDITIONS ARE VFR
- Phraseology for intersection departure: "[ACID] RUNWAY 26 AT DELTA, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF"
- Minimum separation for Cat1 departing after Cat3(jet): 6000' AND AIRBORNE
- Departing a/c that will be vectored immediately after takeoff must be assigned initial headings: BEFORE DEPARTURE
- When applying separation to successive departure, you must consider: AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, departure in same direction from parallel runways may be released with 15 degrees of divergence if runways are separated by 2500'
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, separate departures from same heliport if courses diverge by 15 degrees.
- In RADAR ENVIRONMENT, separation heli departure from another aircraft using 15 degrees, use: HELICOPTER'S TAKEOFF COURSE
- In RADAR, separate arrivals from departures by 2 miles if separation will increase to 3 miles: when takeoff roll begins.
- In NON-RADAR, for 2 departures diverging by 45 deg's, need: 1 MINUTE between takeoffs
- In NON-RADAR if courses diverge by 45 degrees within 5 minutes, need 2 MINUTES BETWEEN TAKEOFFS
- In NON-RADAR, ensure departure TURNS OUT OF THE WAY before arrival makes PROCEEDURE TURN
- Issue Wake Turbulence advisories with position, altitude, and direction of flight of a heavy-jet to: ANY VFR NOT BEING RADAR VECTORED
- Cancel takeoff clearances only for: SAFETY REASONS
- Must identify a runway in a takeoff clearance: ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS
WAKE TURBULANCE:
- Small behind heavy = 5 miles
- Large behind heavy = 4 miles
- Separate an a/c from a heavy jet when operating on a runway with a displaced threshold, if the projected paths will cross, by 2 minutes
- SVFR is a VFR clearance in IFR conditions. MUST be requested by pilot.
- Can only be approved if arriving and departing IFR flights are NOT delayed
- Ground visibility for SVFR must be 1 SM … For air carriers, it's 1/2 SM
- SVFR can never be assigned fixed altitude because of the 'stay clear of clouds' requirement
- Approach conducted by an a/c on an IFR flight plan that authorizes clear-of-clouds to the airport = VISUAL APPROACH
- Pilot must have the AIRPORT or the PROCEEDING AIRCRAFT to perform a visual approach
- In order to clear an aircraft for a visual approach, the overtaking aircraft must be advised of the distance and speed difference of the proceeding aircraft
- If the aircraft sees the airport but not the proceeding aircraft, RADAR SEPARATION or VISUAL SEPARATION must be maintained to clear for the visual approach
- Must ensure all other separation before application of 'visual separation'
- Must consider WAKE TURBULANCE, WEATHER, ROUTE OF FLIGHT, and AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE to provide visual separation.
- Controller is responsible for calling other aircraft's position, direction, and intentions before applying visual separation
Minimum separation (in time) for a BE35 (bonanza) to depart behind a DC-10… 2 minutes
Radar requirement... 5 miles
If a C310 is 1000' down the runway on takeoff roll, a Cherokee holding short of the runway requesting takeoff… YOU CAN ISSUE TAKEOFF CLEARANCE if there's reasonable assurance that the separation will exist when the Cherokee begins takeoff roll.
If a Sabreliner (large) departs runway 26, and a bonanza (small) is holding short at delta (intersection takeoff), when can he takeoff? 3 minutes (small at intersection departing behind large = 3 minutes)
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